Dryden's Thinking Activity

1) Do you find any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of Play?

Let's first see both the definition,
Aristotle's definition

"Tragedy, then is an art of imitation of an certain that is serious, complete and of a certain magnitude; in the language embellished with each kind of artistic ornament. The several kinds being found in separate parts of the play; in the form of action not of narrative; through pity and fear effecting the proper purgation catharsis of these and similar emotions."

Dryden's definition

"A play ought to be a just and lively image of human nature, representing its passion and humors and the changes of fortune to which it is subjected, for the delight and instruction of mankind"

We can see diffrence from the very starting of the definition, Aristotle starts with word "Tragedy" while wordsworth starts with "The play" which shows that Aristotle only give definition of Tragedies while wordsworth speaks about The Play in general. In Aristotle's definition there is words used like "pity", "fear", "catharsis" this all words shows inaway a delight through sad emotions while wordsworth's definition talk about "Delight" which includes all kind of delight. These are some visible difference in both definition.

2) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons.

I would rather prefer to go with the moderns, yes ancients are important but it doesn't mean that we stuck to them if we will stuck at one point we will die we have to move on and this is the reason I will go with moderns because they always add something new to the work of ancients and yes moderns are sit on the back of ancients and they can see far because inaway they are at height.

3) Do you think that the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate? (Say for example, Death should not be performed as it is neither 'just' not 'lively' image, displaying duel fight with blunted swords, thousands of soldiers marching represented as five on stage, mingling of mirth and serious, multiple plots etc.)

As per my thinking it is not appropriate to show something inferior just because they don't follow you this is not fare practice. Both french plays and English plays have their own charm so no one is superior or inferior. Now the question is about showing some type of scene on stage, I think it is all right to show death scene or love scene on stage, duel fight with blunted swords these all things are normal to show because audiance knows that they are watching play not reality so there is no harm to show these things. Now mingling of mirth and serious or too many sub plots, that is the choice of writer, and tragi-comedy it is good invention or too many sub plots are also acceptable they somehow make play iteresting. So the arguments which are presented against English drama and in favour of french drama is unappropriate.

4) What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?

I think both are equally important and mostly doesn't matter it is prosaic or poetic only matters is meaning or the depth of the dialogue. Well rhymed and meteric poetic lines if don't have depth of meaning than that rhymed lines are worthless. So baisically it doesn't matter the dialogues are in prosaic lines or poetic lines the deep understandig which dialogue gives that is important and every dialogue may be don't need to give deep meaings then even it is upon writers choice in which he wants to write.